***What are you saying here? That there are two (or more) sets of the Jewish nation? Is that another item to add to my list of dispensational slice and dice results; two Jewish nations?***
Chip’s assertions seem to be that whenever he sees “nation” in his NT it must refer always to a geographic entity composed of a pure blood people. Thus when you noted that we are a royal priesthood and a holy nation, that must refer to the physical local of Israel.
You see, rather than looking at the context for meaning, you presume a fixed definition and read that into the passage. And, even if the passage is using present tense verbs, you always assume that it is a future event.
Does this have something to do with their gap theory? Or do they justify misreading the tenses by misapplying 2 Peter 3:8?