[invoman]

then you must affirm that a Christian is obliged to seek these remedies for his sin.

The remedy for sin is Jesus.

There is also this verse:

Gal 2:19-21 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

[magisterium]

This response is an evasion of my question. No Christian here denies that the remedy for sin is Jesus. But you accused me of saying that Jesus was lying in Matthew 5:29-30. I simply asked you, and now ask you again, to demonstrate what He meant in those verses if, as you implied, He is meant to be taken literally in all cases. If He was not speaking hyperbolically, according to the everyday method of Aramaic speakers in His day, then what was He doing? Your FR homepage states that you believe the Bible is easy for everyone to understand ("perspicuousness," as the Reformers liked to say). Alright, then how do you dovetail what He said in Mt. 5:29-30 with "plain-text meaning."