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To: topcat54; fortheDeclaration
Such silly statements do not help with your argument against the obvious parallel between Matt 24:15 and Luke 21:20. It only proves the fundamental irrationality of the entire dispensational system.

Using your rationale here, the "abomination of desolation" is "armies surrounding Jerusalem". Is that what the abomination of desolation means to you?

Just because something is parallel doesn't mean that it is identical or coincidental as these two passages prove. They may be similar but not the same.

274 posted on 11/07/2007 10:16:02 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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To: Uncle Chip; fortheDeclaration; topcat54; Dr. Eckleburg; Lord_Calvinus

Who profaned the altar? Who brought the curse upon them that they became desolate? What did they do, these ones who profaned the altar and brought the curse and yes it’s past tense


275 posted on 11/07/2007 10:46:40 AM PST by 1000 silverlings (Everything that deceives also enchants: Plato)
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To: Uncle Chip; Lee N. Field; Dr. Eckleburg; 1000 silverlings; Lord_Calvinus; fortheDeclaration
Using your rationale here, the "abomination of desolation" is "armies surrounding Jerusalem". Is that what the abomination of desolation means to you?

Jesus said it. Luke interpreted it. Take it up with them.

Just because something is parallel doesn't mean that it is identical or coincidental as these two passages prove. They may be similar but not the same.

Come on, Chipper, in order to discount the obvious parallelism and intent of Luke to be interpreting Jesus’ words for first century gentile readers, you need to have a better argument that "nu-uh".

You seem to have a very wooden understanding of the phrase "abomination of desolation" as used by Jesus. Jesus was using the phrase in much the same way was we would use a phrase like "Potemkin village". It conjures up a concept in the mind of the hearers based on historical facts. It can be applied to a modern situation for effect. E.g., "The CFO of the bank constructed a Potemkin village in order to hide his embezzlement." No one would read that sentence and think the CFO had anything to do with Catherine the Great.

So Jesus uses the phrase "abomination of desolation" (which comes from Daniel) to give His hearers a sense of the sort of destruction that was about to fall upon Jerusalem and the temple. Remember, He wants to impress the Jewish Christians that they need to flee at the first sign of the "abomination of desolation". If they waited until ensigns were actually set up in the temple or pigs sacrificed (as dispensationalists suppose) it would have been too late for the believers to flee.

Making any sense yet?

276 posted on 11/07/2007 10:49:30 AM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism is a disease ... as contagious as polio.")
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To: Uncle Chip; topcat54; Lord_Calvinus; Dr. Eckleburg; fortheDeclaration; 1000 silverlings

“Using your rationale here, the ‘abomination of desolation’ is ‘armies surrounding Jerusalem’. Is that what the abomination of desolation means to you?”

What kind of army do you think the Roman army was? Here’s a quote from B.H. Carroll about the Roman army:

“The Roman sign was a straight staff, capped with a metallic eagle, and right under the eagle was a graven image of Caesar. Caesar claimed to be divine. Caesar exacted divine worship, and every evening when those standards were placed, the Roman legion got down and worshipped the image of Caesar thereof, and every morning at the roll call a part of the parade was for the whole legion to prostrate themselves before that graven image and worship it.”


281 posted on 11/07/2007 11:33:54 AM PST by tabsternager
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