[topcat54]

The real difference for a classical dispensationist is the difference between church age believers, Christians,(Jews and Gentiles forming one body) and saved Jews and Gentiles after the Rapture, and their future promises.

But there is no difference in the Bible. It is a figment of the dispensationalist’s imagination.

You need to be able to point to something in the Bible, not in Scofield’s Notes.

[fortheDeclaration]

[The real difference for a classical dispensationist is the difference between church age believers, Christians,(Jews and Gentiles forming one body) and saved Jews and Gentiles after the Rapture, and their future promises.]

But there is no difference in the Bible. It is a figment of the dispensationalist’s imagination. You need to be able to point to something in the Bible, not in Scofield’s Notes.

When a person was saved in the Old Testament he did not cease being either Jew or Gentile, today, after the Resurrection, there is neither Jew nor Gentile in Christ (Gal.3:28).

There were no Christians in the Old Testament and there will no Christians after the Rapture, since only Christians make up the bride of Christ (Eph.5:30)

You need to be able to explain another interpetation for those scriptures that those notes refer to as proof of the doctrine.

And based on what you have done with Matthew 24 and Luke 21, it is clear that you are unable to do so without twisting the clear meaning of what the words actually say.