[topcat54]

The difference is that “dispensation” is a Greek word that does appear in the bible, and it is used in Eph 1:10 in roughly the way that modern dispensationists use it.

Caught you in an outright fabrication. You have been repeatedly asked to prove that "dispensation" ala dispensationalism is used "roughly" the same as it is in the Bible. You cannot. Unless your definition of "roughly" includes as a possible meaning; "not even close".

[Uncle Chip]

You have been repeatedly asked to prove that "dispensation" ala dispensationalism is used "roughly" the same as it is in the Bible. You cannot.

And you cannot prove otherwise, can you???? This sure sounds like the dispensation after the times of the Gentiles spoken of by Jesus, doesn't it:

"That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him. [Ephesians 1:10]

[xzins]

We’ve discussed this tc and you agree that “economy” was an appropriate understanding coming out of Eph 1:10. And “economy” is roughly what is meant by a dispensation by those of us who accept the reality of “unique periods of time” (UPTs).

I think it’s on this thread, unless my memory is faulty. You can go back and look it up if you like. If it isn’t this thread, then we’ll have to try to remember the other recent “dispensationalists are meatheads” threads that you’ve posted. :>)