First off, I’m no scholar of course, and there’s much I don’t know. But to accept the dispensational view, then there must be a 2,000-year gap between the 69th and 70th week and an assumed “third temple” when there’s no mention of it in Daniel nor anywhere else in the Bible. I think those are pretty big issues to just assume (i.e. eisegesis).
But here’s an interesting quote to consider by Clement of Alexandria, one of the Early Church fathers, on Daniel:
160 AD Clement of Alexandria (On Daniel 9:24-27 ; The ‘Seventy Weeks’ of Daniel) “And thus Christ became King of the Jews, reigning in Jerusalem in the fulfillment of the seven weeks. And in the sixty and two weeks the whole of Judaea was quiet, and without wars. And Christ our Lord, “the Holy of Holies,” having come and fulfilled the vision and the prophecy, was anointed in His flesh by the Holy Spirit of His Father. In those “sixty and two weeks,” as the prophet said, and “in the one week,” was He Lord. The half of the week Nero held sway, and in the holy city Jerusalem placed the abomination; and in the half of the week he was taken away, and Otho, and Galba, and Vitellius. And Vespasian rose to the supreme power, and destroyed Jerusalem, and desolated the holy place.” (Miscellanies 1:21)
BTW, can you answer my question: How does the “near” in Revelation take on the same meaning as the “distant future” in Daniel?
“And thus Christ became King of the Jews, reigning in Jerusalem in the fulfillment of the seven weeks”
When did this take place?
“BTW, can you answer my question: How does the “near” in Revelation take on the same meaning as the “distant future” in Daniel?”
About the same way as “the kingdom of God is in you” and “the kingdom of God is at hand”. It depends on the context. One of a parents greatest tool in dealing with insistant kids is “in a minute” as is a husband’s, watching the football game.