Matthew was written to a primarily Jewish audience. That does not mean it was written exclusively to Jews in some future imaginary time and place. Remember, the Olivet Discourse, for example, was precipitated by His disciple, i.e., Jewish Christians. He was answering their question and the answer was relevant for them.
For example, we have seen how Luke in his gospel interprets the Hebrew phrase "abomination of desolation" for the gentile readers. Same message, same intention, different audience.
We see the same thing with the "kingdom of" phrases. Matthew consistently uses the phrase "kingdom of heaven" while Luke uses "kingdom of God" to speak of exactly the same things. The examples are too numerous to mention all of them:
"From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, ‘Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.’" (Matt. 4:17)"Jesus came to Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, and saying, ‘The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand. Repent, and believe in the gospel.’" (Mark 1:14,15)
"Another parable He put forth to them, saying: ‘The kingdom of heaven is like a mustard seed, which a man took and sowed in his field,’" (Matt. 13:31)
"Then He said, ‘To what shall we liken the kingdom of God? Or with what parable shall we picture it? It is like a mustard seed which, when it is sown on the ground, is smaller than all the seeds on earth;’" (Mark 4:30,31)
There is no justification to say that Matthew was written exclusively to Jews. That is a dispensational fantasy.
No, a Christian would not be concerned about fleeing on a sabbath day, once it was revealed to him that those days meant nothing, as they had by 70AD.
It mean nothing to them, but it meant everything to folks who controlled the street and sold food, etc which they would need to set out on a hasty journey.
But I don’t expect you to get it with those dispensational blinders you are wearing.
Matthew was written to a primarily Jewish audience. That does not mean it was written exclusively to Jews in some future imaginary time and place. Remember, the Olivet Discourse, for example, was precipitated by His disciple, i.e., Jewish Christians. He was answering their question and the answer was relevant for them.
If Matthew was written to a primarily Jewish audience, then that who must be seen as it primarily being directed to.
When the Sabbath is being mentioned and references made to the Book of Daniel, He is speaking to Jews who will deal with the anti-Christ of the future (2Thess.2)
For example, we have seen how Luke in his gospel interprets the Hebrew phrase "abomination of desolation" for the gentile readers. Same message, same intention, different audience.
I think we have gone over that and Luke is not interpeting anything regarding the 'Abomination of desolation'.
He mentions desolation, he doesn't say anything about the Abomination that causeth desolation'
That is simply a bit of 'scripture wresting' on your part.
We see the same thing with the "kingdom of" phrases. Matthew consistently uses the phrase "kingdom of heaven" while Luke uses "kingdom of God" to speak of exactly the same things. The examples are too numerous to mention all of them: "From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, ‘Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.’" (Matt. 4:17) "Jesus came to Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, and saying, ‘The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand. Repent, and believe in the gospel.’" (Mark 1:14,15) "Another parable He put forth to them, saying: ‘The kingdom of heaven is like a mustard seed, which a man took and sowed in his field,’" (Matt. 13:31) "Then He said, ‘To what shall we liken the kingdom of God? Or with what parable shall we picture it? It is like a mustard seed which, when it is sown on the ground, is smaller than all the seeds on earth;’" (Mark 4:30,31) There is no justification to say that Matthew was written exclusively to Jews. That is a dispensational fantasy.
And where are the Kingdom scriptures that aren't repeated in the other Gospels, such as the gathering of the fish?
Amazing, how you guys always look for similitaries but never differences?
(3) Since the kingdom of heaven is the earthly sphere of the universal kingdom of God, the two have almost all things in common. For this reason many parables and other teachings are spoken of the kingdom of heaven in Matthew, and of the kingdom of God in Mark and Luke. It is the omissions which are significant. The parables of the wheat and tares, and of the net Matthew 13:24-30,36-43,47-50 are not spoken of the kingdom of God. In that kingdom there are neither tares nor bad fish. But the parable of the leaven Matthew 13:33 is spoken of the kingdom of God also, for, alas, even the true doctrines of the kingdom are leavened with the errors of which the Pharisees, Sadducees, and the Herodians were the representatives. (See Scofield "Matthew 13:33") . (http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/ScofieldReferenceNotes/srn.cgi?book=mt&chapter=006
[ No, a Christian would not be concerned about fleeing on a sabbath day, once it was revealed to him that those days meant nothing, as they had by 70AD. ]
It mean nothing to them, but it meant everything to folks who controlled the street and sold food, etc which they would need to set out on a hasty journey. But I don’t expect you to get it with those dispensational blinders you are wearing.
If it meant nothing to them, then the Lord would not have told them to pray that they would not have to flee on it.
Those who were to flee were not to stop and buy groceries along the way!