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To: topcat54

More correctly ... EVERY Greek word translated into English has an English word representing it. :>)

It refers to the style, or ordering of the economy of the steward of the household.

Therefore, when referring to the “dispensation of grace” it would refer to that economy....as in “the dispensation of the fullness of times.”


33 posted on 10/24/2007 10:38:05 AM PDT by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain. True support of the troops means praying for US to WIN the war!)
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To: xzins

I wonder if we could get a bulk discount on helmets. You know of a good source?


34 posted on 10/24/2007 10:44:05 AM PDT by Quix (GOD ALONE IS GOD; WORTHY; PAID THE PRICE; IS COMING AGAIN; KNOWS ALL; IS LOVING; IS ALTOGETHER GOOD)
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To: xzins
Therefore, when referring to the “dispensation of grace” it would refer to that economy....as in “the dispensation of the fullness of times.”

Are these two "dispensations" or one?

It seems that in at least two instances, the word is referring particularly to Paul’s ministry, and not to times and seasons in general (1 Cor. 9:17; Eph. 3:2).

Is there anything in the Bible to indicate that "dispensation" was intended to connote what modern-day dispensationalists have come to believe? I submit there is no pattern in the Bible that would lead a person to such a conclusion. It’s just bad exegesis of the text containing the word.

35 posted on 10/24/2007 10:44:58 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Friends don't let friends listen to dispensationalists.")
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