Please try not to be so arrogantly condescnding.
Your posts indicated that you didn't know what an ecumenical council is or how one operates. Since a false understanding is the basis of your argument, it's a fair question.
Chrysostom was not speaking in limited terms of the first council of Jerusalem. He uses the exact same language that Rome tries to say denotes a "primacy" for the bishops of Rome for James, that James IS the "chief ruler" of the Church.
dangus did a nice dissection of this cherry-picking.
Please try not to be so arrogantly condescnding.
Your posts indicated that you didn't know what an ecumenical council is or how one operates.
Coming from one who ignorantly confused Montanism with Modalism, you have no gorund to stand on.