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To: dangus
"The introduction makes clear that a restoration is involved, yes. But, given the absence of any reference to restoring missing verses to Genesis 50, that seems to refer to restoring a proper interpretation / translation,"

From the intro:

...The Lord inspired the Prophet Joseph Smith to restore truths to the Bible text that had become lost or changed since the original words were written

It seems pretty clear to me that in order to restore things that had become lost, you would have to add them back in.

496 posted on 10/12/2007 6:06:59 PM PDT by Grig
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To: dangus

I wonder from what manuscript Smith ‘translated’ to add all the verses to the King James Bible? And with direct revelation, why were changes needed to the text Smith presented to his people? ... The apologists will blame it on errors made by scribes working for Smith, but the changes were not all directed by Smith, as far as i am aware. I’ve always found it curious that Smith wrote the B of M in King James English (as he supposedly ‘translated’ reformed egyptian using a peepstone, though it was not the spoken English of his day in upstate New York, especially since there are words in the B of M that had opposite meaning in Smith’s day to what they meant in King James’ day.


500 posted on 10/12/2007 7:15:08 PM PDT by MHGinTN (If you can read this, you've had life support. Defend life support for others in the womb.)
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