Why? Because it agrees with your views?
There is no evidence anywhere in the NT that gentile believers kept the Mosaic feast days of Israel. Nada zero zilch.
When the directives where given to the gentile believers from the broader church in Acts 15, the idea of keeping Mosaic feast days is nowhere to be found.
Paul had may opportunities in his letters to enjoin such behavior on the gentiles, but he never does . He had a perfect opportunity, for example, in 1 Cor. 11 when discussing the matter of the Lord’s Suppert (not “passover”), and he never mentioned feast-keeping. It’s hard to believe that the same gentiles who could not rightly keep the very simple Lord’s Supper managed to get all the detailed feast days of Moses perfectly right without the need for a word from Paul.
No, my friend, you thesis and the thesis of this paper does not stand up to the intense scrutiny of the Word of God. It is built on speculation and an innate distrust, even hatred, for the teachings of the Church for the last 2000 years. It is revisionism at its finest.
There's all kinds. You just can't see it because to admit it would mean that you have to reject the philosophy upon which you've created religious views.
In Jesus time:
Joh 12:20 And there were certain Greeks among them that came up to worship at the feast:
Joh 12:21 The same came therefore to Philip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired him, saying, Sir, we would see Jesus.
There was no clear defining day when Christians began to forego observing the feasts of the Lord. But there were events that sped up the process, namely anti-semitism and the later prominence of the Roman church.
We know from history that as late as 365 AD council of The Council of Laodicea had to tell gentile Christians not to observe one of the Lord's feasts, the weekly sabbath:
#29: Christians must not judaize by resting on the Sabbath, but must work on that day, rather honouring the Lord's Day; and, if they can, resting then as Christians. But if any shall be found to be judaizers, let them be anathema from Christ. (Percival Translation [8]).
Paul had may opportunities in his letters to enjoin such behavior on the gentiles, but he never does . He had a perfect opportunity, for example, in 1 Cor. 11 when discussing the matter of the Lord’s Suppert (not “passover”), and he never mentioned feast-keeping. It’s hard to believe that the same gentiles who could not rightly keep the very simple Lord’s Supper managed to get all the detailed feast days of Moses perfectly right without the need for a word from Paul.
Sure they did because that was the normal custom for Christians. That's what they were taught from scripture, the "old testament".
Act 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the Scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
Act 17:12 Therefore many of them believed; also of honorable women which were Greeks, and of men, not a few.
Act 15:21 "For Moses from ancient generations has in every city those who preach him, since he is read in the synagogues every Sabbath."
Thanks for replying to me. I certainly appreciate your comments.
I am sure you noticed that in my reply to you, I mentioned that I agree with what you said. I disagree with DouglasKC on the feasts.