He got Mary's flesh [...] If He's gonna be perfect humanity, He'd better have perfect human flesh untainted by sin. To me the Immaculate Conception, seen in that light, made sense.So, where does he go wrong? A miracle is required to produce Perfect Human Jesus. Flesh of Mary is used, but it did not have to be used. It is a natural reasoning to conclude that her flesh was likewise incorrupt -- not only do we get the Immaculate Conception form it, but also the Assumption.
Conversely, no miracle is required to produce Mary (well, there was a miracle of overcoming infertility and old age of the parents, but not an ontological miracle to produce a god-man). Her immaculacy comes not from her parents, but from Jesus himself, and the logical dominoes do not fall.
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Conversely, no miracle is required to produce Mary (well, there was a miracle of overcoming infertility and old age of the parents, but not an ontological miracle to produce a god-man). Her immaculacy comes not from her parents, but from Jesus himself, and the logical dominoes do not fall.
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So you’re saying that Jesus made Mary perfect at some point in her life after being born from imperfect parents so that He could be perfect? Why loop back to Mary then?
Why not have Jesus be perfect made from imperfect flesh just as you claim Mary was?