[TexConfederate1861]

Rome’s Pre-eminence has never been questioned. That the Patriarch of Rome had any authority outside of his jurisdiction is what Orthodoxy disputes. He NEVER had any authority outside of his own territory, unless it was to settle a dispute, which was done on more than one occasion, historically. The only entity with the power tomake decisions regarding doctrine and dogma are the Ecumenical Councils of the undivided Church. If Clement was genuine, or needed, then WHY was his First Epistle not added to the canon of scripture?

[RobbyS]

The governmental authority of the pope of Rome is a historical development, partly in response to the diminution of patriarchal authority in the East, partly in response to the disappearance of imperial authority in Italy and elsewhere. Antioch and Alexandria fell under Muslim rule, which gradually sapped the vigor of each. Much the same happened to Constantinople. Moscovy apppeared, of course as the "Third Rome," and as the successor state of Byzantium. much as the German Empire was that of the western Roman Empire. The papacy, of course had suffered a rough patch at the same time as Byzantium reached its high point after fending off the Arabs. It had recovered, however, which as much as anything explains the clash with Constantinople. Manzikert was the 9/11 of the time; it changed everything eventually. The Turkish invasion, the struggle for power between Rome and the German emperor, and New Rome's decline ended in disaster for all parties. The union of East and West was never in the cards after the Fourth Crusade.