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Rome was not termed "Babylon" until after John's Book of Revelation began to circulate at the beginning of the 2nd century.

Where on earth are you getting that? The fact is, it WAS used to refer to Rome in 100 *in the New Testament.*

Ummm 100 AD is the "beginning of the 2nd century.

That's solid, concrete evidence it was already used by Christians of the 1st century.

Name them ------

But they don't disagree on the most important detail, do they, that he was in Rome?

Is that really the most important detail??? How would a trip through the city of Rome make him the first Pope of the Catholic Church. It takes a vivid imagination to make that leap ---

They are passing on something that was universally known.

If it was universally known, why is it not universally written down somewhere before that, and why are all the details universally absent???