HD: Can you see angels? Can you see demons?
People in the Bible claim they have; I don't. But that doesn't answer my question. I didn't ask you if you saw the lake of fire but where it is. Can you stay focused on the subject matter and not stray?
You are using TODAY's dictionary to interpret Judaism 2,000 years ago. They went through many revisions in that time, much like the Orthodox I might add.
There you go again. What's with you and not being able to stay on the subject? Please, I gave you Jewish Encyclopedia (referenced it as well) explanation of what is known about the subject in Judaism. I was not using "todays dictionary!" I say peach and you say lemon.
And your interpretation is based on today's HD I surmise? The way you understand it in your cultural reality and your own experience, and that somehow makes it "more better" than Jewish Encyclopedia?
And what exactly revisions did the Orthodox undertake? Could you enumerate them?
Among who? The Pharisees who believed in angels, heaven, hell and everything else or the Sadducee that didn't believe in an eternal life?
The Sadducees were the priesthood in the Temple. They must have counted for something. The Pharisees got their ideas from Zoroastrianism. No wonder the Sadducees did not take them seriously. The Sadducees also only recognized the Torah as Scripture. All the rest was not considered the Hebrew Bible. Even to this day the Jews stand only when the Torah is read. The rest of the OT is profitable for reading but not equal to the Torah.
Then what is the meaning of Sodom and Gomorrah or the flood of Noah?
They all have their moral content. It is all about wickedness of man. They tell us that wickedness leads to destruction. We both know this is true, don't we?
I can proof Christ with the NT just as well. He is the exact same in the OT as He is in the NT.
Then why don't you? He didn't write the Psalms. David did. Christ taught the Apostles who wrote what He taught. Leave David be.
He is the exact same in the OT as He is in the NT\
No He is not, because it was not until His ministry on earth that we have full revelation of God to man. The OT Jews did not know God because He did not fully reveal Himself yet. All previous revelation was partial (as in incomplete). So why are you not proofing Christ in His full revelation to mankind, in His Gospels?