I do believe that Calvin taught that children who die before an age of accountability (whatever that is assumed to be)are of the elect and will be in heaven. I know that my pastor and I had some disagreements about this. He felt that it was extra-Biblical. And it may be. I am not sure which way I fall on this.
I am not aware of Calvin teaching that. I do know that Calvin trusted the Goodness of God to preserve the Elect whether they were infants who died or older.
I know that my pastor and I had some disagreements about this. He felt that it was extra-Biblical. And it may be. I am not sure which way I fall on this.
The original question as I proposed it was, if all children are innocent, is God just to command the killing of those children when God commanded the Israelites to kill the infants of the Canaanites when the children of Israel entered into Canaan?
And is Romans 3 all inclusive as it seems to be or does "no, not one" not apply to children?
Romans 3:
For we have previously charged both Jews and Greeks that they are all under sin. 10 As it is written:
“ There is none righteous, no, not one;
11 There is none who understands;
There is none who seeks after God.
12 They have all turned aside;
They have together become unprofitable;
There is none who does good, no, not one.”
In Greek, οὐδέ/oude(no, not), is a negative disjunctive conjunction which reinforces and assentuates the negative of "εἷς/heis", a cardinal numeral of singularity, one, which is to say, the the negative is so reinforced as to mean not even one. It removes all possibility of even one being possible.