Since you're asking again, I am unsure what you mean by "identical". I know it isn't "Word". I think a perfectly proper use of "word" is the scriptures that God gave us. God's Holy word is the scriptures. If your point is to distinguish between the original scriptures and the translations we have today, then we can either reason that God has compensated for any errors such that the intended message still comes through, OR, we could say that the scriptures we have are flawed and relatively useless without the men of the Church to repair them for us. The latter sounds very silly to me because it has God being impotent and needing man's help. The former sounds much more reasonable as it preserves God's control and sovereignty.
God either wants us to be dependent on Him or dependent upon men. Our faiths have gone in different directions on this issue.
God has lips? :) Does this "word" refer only to that which is or has been spoken?
The Bible is clear that God spoke. Do you deny this? I have plenty of quotes if you like. My use of "word" here was in reference to John 21:25. In this context, God's "word" includes the scriptures (God's inspired word in written form) and all other spoken words of God that we don't know about. It certainly does NOT include any extra-scriptural Tradition. God's word that is known and knowable to all can only be found in scriptures.
I am unsure what you mean by "identical".
The technical use - exactly the same, indistinguishable, interchangeable.
I think a perfectly proper use of "word" is the scriptures that God gave us.
Remember, Kolo's comment and reference that's the basis of the question ..
Some people think that the Word spoken of here means the literal words of God. Its John 1:1, FK.
"Word" in John 1:1...
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;"
Clearer now?
It's a greek thing. :)