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To: blue-duncan
Try Mark 6:3, “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.”

From the NAB

The brother of James . . . Simon: in Semitic usage, the terms "brother," "sister" are applied not only to children of the same parents, but to nephews, nieces, cousins, half-brothers, and half-sisters; cf Genesis 14:16; 29:15; Lev 10:4. While one cannot suppose that the meaning of a Greek word should be sought in the first place from Semitic usage, the Septuagint often translates the Hebrew ah by the Greek word adelphos, "brother," as in the cited passages, a fact that may argue for a similar breadth of meaning in some New Testament passages. For instance, there is no doubt that in v 17, "brother" is used of Philip, who was actually the half-brother of Herod Antipas. On the other hand, Mark may have understood the terms literally; see also Mark 3:31-32; Matthew 12:46; 13:55-56; Luke 8:19; John 7:3, 5. The question of meaning here would not have arisen but for the faith of the church in Mary's perpetual virginity.

274 posted on 07/11/2007 1:50:13 PM PDT by frogjerk (If ignorance was bliss, liberals would be happy.)
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To: frogjerk; blue-duncan
From the NAB

The brother of James . . . Simon: in Semitic usage, the terms "brother," "sister" are applied not only to children of the same parents, but to nephews, nieces, cousins, half-brothers, and half-sisters; cf Genesis 14:16; 29:15; Lev 10:4. While one cannot suppose that the meaning of a Greek word should be sought in the first place from Semitic usage, the Septuagint often translates the Hebrew ah by the Greek word adelphos, "brother," as in the cited passages, a fact that may argue for a similar breadth of meaning in some New Testament passages. For instance, there is no doubt that in v 17, "brother" is used of Philip, who was actually the half-brother of Herod Antipas. On the other hand, Mark may have understood the terms literally; see also Mark 3:31-32; Matthew 12:46; 13:55-56; Luke 8:19; John 7:3, 5. The question of meaning here would not have arisen but for the faith of the church in Mary's perpetual virginity.


This Scripture is unknown to me.

Oh! A footnote. Nevermind.

304 posted on 07/11/2007 3:00:03 PM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am most likely a Biblical Unitarian? Let me be perfectly clear. I know nothing.)
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To: frogjerk; maine-iac7
That’s just baloney and poor exegesis. Using your tools Mary is not the mother of Jesus because Eve is the “mother” of us all, Jerusalem is the “mother” of us all, Babylon is the “mother” of harlots, and Mary is the “mother” of John.

Jesus is not the “son” of Mary because He is the “son” of Joseph and we know that isn’t so. John is also the “son” of Mary so we can’t be sure if the writers are just using “son” metaphorically.

John is not the “brother” of James and Peter is not the “brother” of Andrew because we know that “brother” is used universally to mean friends and near relatives.

Father of course can mean many things like “father” of lights, we aren’t to call any man “father” here, there’s our “father David”, “father” Abraham, “father” Jacob, “father” Isaac, your “father” the Devil, “father” of many nations.

Based on your logic we can’t be sure of any relationships in the scripture since they are used for blood relatives, close relatives, far relatives, close associates, and concepts.

So please explain, based on your exegesis, how you arrived at Mary being the genealogical mother of Jesus?

339 posted on 07/11/2007 5:06:29 PM PDT by blue-duncan
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