I don't see the number you mention in the paragraph you posted. You'll be kind enough to post the part which contains it and the context. Thank you.
Then you may explain what makes you think that was all of the Israelites?
"Hearing no more of them" means "assimilated completely"? Please post the good professor's reasoning for the assumption.
I don't see the number you mention in the paragraph you posted. You'll be kind enough to post the part which contains it and the context. Thank you.
It is in the Bullinger footnote.
I don't have my Bullinger in front of me, so check 1Ki.17 in his study Bible.
Facts are stubborn things. Then you may explain what makes you think that was all of the Israelites?
Oh, that wasn't all the Israelites, that was all the Israelites that went into captivity with the Assyrians.
We know many of the Iraelites were in the South.
"Hearing no more of them" means "assimilated completely"? Please post the good professor's reasoning for the assumption.
Because when they are not heard from anymore and there is no record of them moving anywhere (like the Southern tribes), then that assumption is the most likely and valid.
And since there were not 'millions' of them as you tried to build your case on, it is also very reasonable.
Now unless you can come up with some facts to indicate otherwise, that view must be considered the most logical.
Your view is pure myth and conjecture based on bad historical knowledge.
Correction-that should be 2Ki.17, when the captivity took place.