Boy Ping, your hermenutics in II Thess 2:9 is as bad as it is in II Thess 2:10. May I refer you to a few commentaries on that verse.
JF&B:
after--according to the working ("energy") of Satan, as opposed to the energy or working of the Holy Spirit in the Church (see on Eph_1:19). As Christ is related to God, so is Antichrist to Satan, his visible embodiment and manifestation: Satan works through him. Rev_13:2, "The dragon gave him (the beast) his power . . . seat . . . great authority."
Gill:
2Th 2:9 - Even him whose coming is after the working of Satan,.... That is, as a deceiver, a liar, and a murderer; for such was the working of Satan with our first parents; he seduced Eve, not only by subtlety, but by lying; he abode not in the truth, is the father of lies, and a murderer from the beginning: and such is the working of antichrist his firstborn; he comes in a deceitful way, under a profession of Christ, and a pretension of faith in him, and love to him; but speaks lies in hypocrisy, for such are his doctrines and tenets; and is not only a murderer of the bodies of the saints, but of the souls of men; which are the wares the whore of Babylon deals in:
Clarke:
2Th 2:9 - Whose coming is after the working of Satan - The operation of God’s Spirit sends his messengers; the operation of Satan’s spirit sends his emissaries. The one comes κατ’ ενεργειαν του Θεου, after or according to the energy or inward powerful working of God; the other comes κατ’ ενεργειαν του Σατανα, according to the energy or inward working of Satan.
Barnes:
2Th 2:9 - Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan - Greek, κατ ̓ ἐνέργειαν τοὺ Σατανᾶ kat' energeian tou Satana. According to the energy of Satan; that is, the energetic or efficient operation of Satan. The word rendered “after,” it need not be said to one who looks at the Greek, does not refer to time, but is a preposition, meaning according to; in conformity with; meaning that the manner of his appearing would be accompanied by such works as would show that the agency of Satan was employed, and such as he only could produce. It does not mean that the coming of the Lord Jesus would be after Satan had worked in this manner, but that the manifestation of that wicked one would be with such demonstrations of power and wonder as Satan only could effect. The system over which he presides is originated by Satan, and sustained by those things which he alone can perform. On the word “Satan,” see the notes on Job_1:6. The idea is, that it would be under the direction and control of the great enemy of God, and that the things on which it would rely for support could be traced to his agency. In all the pretended miracles to which it would appeal, there would be nothing which Satan could not accomplish.
As Christ is related to God, so is Antichrist to Satan, his visible embodiment and manifestation: Satan works through him. Rev_13:2, "The dragon gave him (the beast) his power . . . seat . . . great authority."
The antichrist (which was mistranslated and should read instead-of-Christ) is a role Satan assumes. They are one and the same. In Rev. 13:2 the dragon (Satan) gives power to the "beast", which is the one world system, political power. The anti-christ is the false prophet, the religous entity. It's Satan playing like he is Jesus.
At the 2nd Advent, Christ takes care of them: And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone. (Rev.19:20)
Jesus throws both of those roles of Satan's into the fire. Satan will never be able to use that religious and political power again. Satan himself is not killed but held through the millennium (Rev.20:2-3)
Understanding that, I find I can't agree with the references you gave me. When you study the 11Thess.2:9 verse it tells me that it is Christ that comes after the working of Satan.