The “man of sin” in 2 Thess, for example, was written into the script as one of the “must be” damned. So are the beast and false prophet. So was Judas.
That is the distinction I’m making.
(BTW, did you see my legal question about The Scotus faith-based decision?)
True, but that doesn't demonstrate that the good-faith offer wasn't extended to either of them. Also, note that under Romans 9:19-24, the only two classifications are those who "must be saved" and those who 'must be' damned.
So are the beast and false prophet.
I'd be very careful about assuming anything in the Apocalypse refers to a specific individual.