Sorry about the cut-and-paste. ;-)
But Fr. Whiteford presented the topics far better than I ever could.
I'm very willing to converse with you but I'm not willing to go off and read the work of some apologist. If you've studied this persons writings perhaps you can sum up. The question on the table is:
The bible doesn’t point to a source of completely new doctrine unmentioned in the bible. Have I missed the place where it does after reading it some 40 times or is there some reason that I should look to that source though the bible doesn't point to it?