It has not been illustrated or even suggested by Catholics on this thread that the Primacy of Christ is in any way dependant on Mary!
Once again, you fail to understand what the title “Co-redemptrix” means. I have explained it above. It does not in any way mean that the primacy of Christ is dependant on Our Lady. As I said before, all privileges of Mary come from Christ.
God Bless.
Which came first, Danny boy, the chicken or the egg?
Once again, you fail to understand what the title "Co-redemptrix" means. I have explained it above. It does not in any way mean that the primacy of Christ is dependant on Our Lady.
I will refer you to your own statement and blue-duncan's questioning of that statement in your post #104...
BLUE-DUNCAN: How does Mary consent to the "immolation" of her son when His death is not revealed until well into His ministry and then, it is revealed to the disciples? When it was told to her that she would conceive all that was revealed was that Jesus would be King. 104 posted on 06/14/2007 1:49:46 PM PDT by blue-duncan DANNY: "Mary takes part in the offering by consenting to the immolation of her Son."
So you see, your own statement makes Mary's consent "a taking part in the offering.
Indeed, by your own words it would appear without "Mary's consent" Christ could not have been sacrificed for your sins and mine, and God's plan of salvation would be nixed before it left the gate.
The RCC's problem, one among many, is the term "co-redemptrix," a designation loaded with error, blasphemy and deceit. Mary does not redeem anyone, nor does she facilitate our redemption. She has nothing to do with our salvation. Zilch. May God help those who believe this lie to run from it.