God’s omniscience before the world was created.
Either:
1. He knew what He was going to do prior to that (or)
2. He knew what everyone else was going to do.
Then He created that which He knew would turn out a particular way.
Can His knowledge of that have been wrong? If so, then He is not omniscient. Could He not have known? If so, He is not omniscient.
So, do you agree with this double predestination thing?
However, this does not imply that God caused Adam to sin. To conclude so would involve the usual appeal to the modal fallacy.