James said no such thing. He said that it would be rebuilt after Jesus returns --- and Jesus had not returned by 50 AD and has still not returned as of today. The tabernacle of David will not be rebuilt until He returns.
Note that the words: "After this I will return" are James' words not Amos's. He then begins to quote Amos after that phrase, meaning that after Jesus returns, He will build again the tabernacle of David.
So has Jesus returned yet????
so when is James returning?
and remind me again just HOW this miasma of eschatological details has the slightest bit of relevance to whether or not the 1st century Gentile converts have to become Jewish in form and substance to be Christian?
You wrote: He said that it (the tabernacle of David, my insertion) would be rebuilt after Jesus returns --- and Jesus had not returned by 50 AD and has still not returned as of today. The tabernacle of David will not be rebuilt until He returns.
Note that the words: "After this I will return" are James' words not Amos's. He then begins to quote Amos after that phrase, meaning that after Jesus returns, He will build again the tabernacle of David.
I think I at least have a partial reason why the church missed this explanation for 1800 years. I can't follow the reasoning and it is right here in front of me. Imagine the poor souls who didn't have the advantage of someone laying it out for them. I see that this shifts from James, (ostensibly qoting Jesus?) uttering only 6 words, and then shifting to the quote from Amos, telling the church council that the Gentiles could skip circumcision because Jesus is going to return sometime and restore the tabernacle of David and rule over the Gentiles....., in the millenium...... sometime in the future......., when Jesus returns a second time. Yeah. I think I would have missed that one too. Thank God for CI Scofield.