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To: dangus
Given the immediate, universal acceptance of Nicea, including in areas beyond the reach of Constantine, it isn’t up to me to assert Rome’s approval of the Council, it’s up to you to cast doubt on it. Far from sowing discord with the imposition of novel doctrines, Nicea settled nearly any and all disagreement, and Aryanism, adventism, quattrodecennialism, all quickly and, in contrast to the pre-Nicene situation, peacefully waned.

You cite no hard historical evidence that Rome played any particularly significant role in the Council Of Nicea.

The non-imposing invitations of Constantine

I have not seen a copy of this "invitation". Have you?

The universal nature of the council, including cultures beyond the influence of the Emperor

* The lack of contest over the assertions of the council, and eventual universal acceptance, with only two dissident Bishops

* The domination of the council by non-Latins, whom Constantine would have less influence over

Actually, this is why it's called the FIRST Ecumenical Council.

How much influence did Rome have?

Canon VI

"Let the ancient customs in Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis prevail, that the Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these, since the like is customary for the Bishop of Rome also. Likewise in Antioch and the other provinces, let the Churches retain their privileges. And this is to be universally understood, that if any one be made bishop without the consent of the Metropolitan, the great Synod has declared that such a man ought not to be a bishop. If, however, two or three bishops shall from natural love of contradiction, oppose the common suffrage of the rest, it being reasonable and in accordance with the ecclesiastical law, then let the choice of the majority prevail."

(Philip Schaff's Translation of Nice, Canon VI, The First Ecumenical Council; The First Council of Nice, Canon VI, 325 AD


This Canon establishes conclusively that the "Primacy" of the Bishop Of Rome is limited to a specific territory. Certainly not universal.

Constantine called. They came, all except the Bishop of Rome. Hmmmmmmmm?

126 posted on 05/22/2007 6:37:18 AM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am most likely a Biblical Unitarian? Let me be perfectly clear. I know nothing.)
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To: OLD REGGIE

>> How much influence did Rome have? <<

It’s an ecumenical council; that means it was one of the times when the REST of the church hashed things out among themselves without being dominated by the pope. The only point is that it wasn’t “UNDER” Constantine.

>> Canon VI <<

Oh come on, Reggie. It’s common knowledge that, on matters of customs, discipline, rites, and privileges that each of the ancient patriarchies has maintained independence from Rome to this day, isn’t it? Surely, you know that there are non-Latins in communion with Rome who have their own rites, their own discipline regarding married priests, for instance, etc., etc., no? Surely you are aware that the Pope is the Patriarch of the Latin Rite, but that there is also the Byzantine Rite, the Melchite Rite, etc., no? C


128 posted on 05/22/2007 6:49:33 AM PDT by dangus
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