You said, "The Magisterium says that a man who was tortured to death came back to life on the third day." This can only mean you say the fact that Jesus died and was resurrected was because the magisterium said it happened.
I said that the event were written in the Gospels, in Greek, before they were translated, so the magisterium read it only.
You replied, "The written Gospels as defined by the Magisterium under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit."
I replied, "The Gospels written before they were translated told the story the magisterium read. Otherwise, if the magisterium hadn't said it, it wouldn't have happened, which it did."
Possibly the last sentence confused you. Suppose the magisterium had not "defined" that event. Did it have happen if not? If it did, the magisterium had nothing to do with it.
Surely you understand. Did not the Gospels in Greek tell the story? Which the Catholic church translated into English? What exactly did the church add, or change? Nothing, obviously, because other translations from the same source documents tell the same story.
So, my point was the magisterium had nothing to do with the fact that Jesus died and was resurrected - you seem to imply otherwise, the church just translated the text.
Sorry not to have been clear before, but I hope by saying it several ways, I can so better.