My point is that the holy days that were part of the old covenant with the nation of Israel are not binding on Christians. Paul makes it clear that binding anything from the old law would make one a debtor to the whole law.
That of course raises a number of questions.
Where does it say that the holy days were part of the old covenant? And where does it say that they're not part of the new covenant?
Does this mean that there is no law under the new covenant...that man is "free" to sin...to transgress God's law?