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To: newgeezer
I doubt the Bereans used that.

Correct. Being Greeks, the Bereans used the Septuagint.

13 posted on 03/30/2007 1:50:33 PM PDT by Nihil Obstat (Holy God, Holy Mighty One, Holy Immortal One, have Mercy on us and on the whole world.)
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To: Nihil Obstat; newgeezer

"Correct. Being Greeks, the Bereans used the Septuagint."

Which, naturally, we still use somewhat to the consternation of the followers of a group of Westerners from 1500 years later who believed they knew better. Perhaps they were and are a more highly evolved form of human and so would know about these things, we Greeks generally being a bit on the swarty side with, as my son says, stubby little legs (He's 6'2").


15 posted on 03/30/2007 3:34:08 PM PDT by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Nihil Obstat; Uncle Chip; kerryusama04; DouglasKC
Correct. Being Greeks, the Bereans used the Septuagint.

I think there were two factions the newly formed Church evangelized after Pentecost and the ones that seemed to be fighting it out were the "Grecian" Jews, (Hellenistic) and the Jerusalem Jews. The Church at that time was only concentrating on the circumcised....not the Gentile. The Hellenistic Jews, indeed did use the faulty Septuagint, and because of the poor translation and addition of unscriptural books they became at odds with the Apostles and early church. [Acts 6:1] And in those days, when the number of the disciples was multiplied, there arose a murmuring of the Grecians against the Hebrews, because their widows were neglected in the daily ministration. The Hebrews, of course taking their Saviour's word as a guide, did not use this translation....they used the Hebrew scriptures only: [Luke 24:44] And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the Law of Moses, and in the Prophets, and in the Psalms, concerning me.

These Grecian Jews evidently had a hard time accepting the Word of God and the teachings of the Apostles and set out to destroy the new Church: [Acts 6:8-10]: And Stephen, full of faith and power, did great wonders and miracles among the people. Then there arose certain of the synagogue, which is called the synagogue of the Libertines, and Cyrenians, and "Alexandrians", and of them of Cilicia and of Asia, disputing with Stephen. And they were not able to resist the wisdom and the spirit by which he spake.

These same Septuagint using Greeks are the faction that attempted to kill the Apostle Paul: [Acts 9:29] And he spake boldly in the name of the Lord Jesus, and disputed against the Grecians: but they went about to slay him. Paul, being an educated man and newly converted to the Hebrew faction, did not use the Septuagint. He studied under "Gamaliel" [Acts 22:3] who himself was the Grandson of the Great Hebrew Scholar of the Babylonian Talmud fame...."Hillel the Elder". I assure you...these two great Hebrew Scholars did not use the Septuagint!

Babylonian Talmud was written in Hebrew

To assume that Paul would encourage the use of the Septuagint version of the Old Testament Scriptures....by the Bereans, or anyone else, is not logical.

16 posted on 03/30/2007 4:02:12 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: Nihil Obstat

~~~~~~~~Correct. Being Greeks, the Bereans used the Septuagint.~~~~~~~~

I wouldn't bet on it...Here's one for the Catholics...


http://www.scionofzion.com/septuagint1.htm


21 posted on 03/30/2007 7:10:55 PM PDT by Iscool (There will be NO peace on earth, NOR good will toward men UNTIL there is Glory to God in the Highest)
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