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To: VeritatisSplendor
I have a question about your two statements up for discussion:

1. contracepting is immoral
2. using NFP to not conceive is moral

The question is: are these two statements directly opposed in your mind? (i.e. If #1 is true, then #2 must be false). If they are, why?
116 posted on 03/21/2007 12:14:41 PM PDT by klossg (GK - God is good!)
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To: klossg

No, they're not opposed. It could be that using NFP not to conceive is moral, but that contracepting is immoral.

Or it could be that using NFP not to conceive is moral, and so is contracepting.

The following two conditional statements seem valid to me.

"Using NFP to not conceive is immoral" implies "Contracepting is immoral."

and

"Contracepting is moral" implies "Using NFP not to conceive is moral."

I believe that using NFP to not conceive is moral, but I have not been convinced by the arguments.

I am not sure whether contracepting is moral or immoral. The arguments for its possible morality when considering the total relationship have weight for me. The arguments against it are mystical, which does not invalidate them. But even when I consider the issue in a mystical light, they do not convince me. The traditions of the Church do have weight with me - rationally speaking, the Church is more likely to be right than I am. Still, I am unconvinced.

Mrs VS


120 posted on 03/21/2007 6:25:36 PM PDT by VeritatisSplendor
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