To: Mr. Lucky
Do you not understand John 6:53? Do you think it's literal? Elsewhere Jesus said nothing of the sort. If Jesus meant his literal body and blood, well He was right there. Why did not He carve off a chunk of flesh and feed it to them and drain out a cup full of His blood for them?
![](http://home.hiwaay.net/~wterrell/william.gif)
57 posted on
03/16/2007 10:03:35 AM PDT by
William Terrell
(Individuals can exist without government but government can't exist without individuals.)
To: William Terrell
Why were many of the Jews scandalized by His words? As the old saying goes, "in God's own time." He decided to give them His Flesh and His Blood to consume at the Last Supper.
60 posted on
03/16/2007 10:16:01 AM PDT by
Pyro7480
("Jesu, Jesu, Jesu, esto mihi Jesus" -St. Ralph Sherwin's last words at Tyburn)
To: William Terrell
You're asking why God did or didn't do something. That's a power He hasn't given any of us.
The fact is Christ predicates his statement with the words "verily, verily" (or "amen, amen" or "truly, truly", depending upon the translation). Most Christians believe these words of Christ; you don't. That's why you can't take communion at Catholic Mass.
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