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To: Uncle Chip
Peter was writing to Jews in 67 AD

Wait, wait! Assuming what is to be proved! I don't know that you're wrong, but I don't know that you're right either. I wouldn't make a big deal of this but it struck me that the notes in my NEB blithely assert that Peter is writing to Gentile Xtians, while my NAB -- the translation evidently done as a project by an English as a Second Language class -- In the Study bible version, (No pictures, though, darn it!) says,

Numerous allusions in the letter suggest that the churches addressed were largely of Gentile composition (1,14,18; 2,9-10;4,3-4), though considerable use is made of the Old Testament (1,24; 2,6-7.9-10.22;3, 10-12)
I don't know why they punctuated the references that way. I just pray, pay, and obey. And I'm not saying they're necessarily right. I'm just saying it's not a slam-dunk that this was addressed to Jews.
1,799 posted on 03/13/2007 7:04:15 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (Now we are all Massoud)
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To: Mad Dawg
My 67 AD date is wrong. It no doubt was earlier. My KJV says 65 AD, another says 63 AD, so compromise with 64 AD for the first epistle.

But notice to whom it is addressed: "the sojourners scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asis, and Bithynia, Elect according to the foreknowledge of God" --- those are the Jews of the diaspora in northern Asia Minor.

1,803 posted on 03/13/2007 7:55:03 AM PDT by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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