Posted on 02/14/2007 2:14:45 PM PST by NYer
why is it when i use the word 'deformation', everyone gets their hackles up?
that is certainly what happened to the HISTORIIC unity that was shown by the church fathers on this justification issue, yes or no?
There are many people, baptized with water and the intention to baptize into Christ, His death and His resurrection, and in the name of the Holy Trinity who think that the Church had lost her way by 1500 or so. I disagree of course, but that's neither here nor there. Those people would consider the term "deformation" not only inaccurate but also, because it sounds like "reformation", to be intended as a parody of their beliefs and chosen not only to declare their error or heresy but to tweak them for it.
I think this conjectured reaction would happen whether or not they were correct in holding their opinion. The word in this context gives offense, and I have difficulty in thinking that it was chosen with the active intention of keeping the conversation reasonable, calm, and charitable.
There is unavoidable offense, and there is avoidable offense. My opinion is that this use of the word "deformation" is an instance of avoidable offense. And that is why my hackles were raised. I am trying to answer your question carefully and as accurately as I can.
If you want to make suggestions or just complain about me, take it to this Open Thread so other posters can contribute.
I will send a copy of your post to you by Freepmail so you can repost it over there.
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