How could that be? Since the canon supposedly was not defined until Trent how could anybody even know what Scripture was? But if that were the case how could Jesus hold men accountable to it?
Cordially,
Before the NT was canon, the OT was well defined. It was to these OT books the Epistles referenced when they referred to Scripture. The Church produced copies of Scripture through hard working scribes before the advent of the printing press and that made the books rare and very valuable in any parish. For this reason, they were protected in the churches and made available for study but not for removal.
But if that were the case how could Jesus hold men accountable to it?
Exactly! Before the Canon of Scripture was defined, there was the Church. Men were held accountable to the Church and her teachings. It can be fairly well demonstrated that personal interpretation of the Scriptures outside of the Church's teachings has led to disunion in the Church, not unity as Christ prayed for us.
The Apostles brought traditions and oral instruction, not books of the Bible (there wasn't one yet). See 2 Thess 2:15, 2 Thess 3:6 and 1 Cor 11:2 for proof this assertion.
There is a difference between a formal declaration by the Church (done at Trent) and the establishment of the canon. All the Trent declaration did was formalize the establishment done by earlier Church councils (Hippo I and II) and Pope Athansius (sp??) around 400AD or thereabouts. The Canon wasn't CHANGED, just "recognized officially".
And what Christ holds men accountable to are the teachings of the His CHURCH, as passed on by His Apostles. Scripture is only a part of that teaching. This is why "sola scriptura" is so ridiculous.