So, is Williams' point that Catholics use the Septuagint, the Septuagint is suspect, and therefore, Catholicism is suspect? Is that the crux of his argument?
Fascinating topic. I'm really uninformed here and appreciate any enlightenment you might offer.
I believe that is the bottom line, at least from some who post on FR.
How about this: Catholics use the Septuagint, therefore the Septuagint is suspect...
There's a whole whackadoodle wing out there that, so far as I can tell, thinks anything other than the King James Version is pretty much the work of the devil.
They're not rational on the topic of different Bible translations.
We can make it even more interesting, after all the Catholic Church is a rather large Church that's been around for a long time. She uses both!
Consider the Latin Vulgate translated by St. Jerome. He caused quite a stir in the Latin speaking world in his day by specifically translating the Old Testament into Latin directly from the Hebrew rather than the Greek Septuagint!
That's one reason, for example, that you will find certain psalms off by a number between the East and the West, etc.
Go figure.