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To: DouglasKC
Here's what's happening. You're basing your understanding of that verse based upon the assumption (and it is an assumption) that Christians don't have to observe the holy days that Christ created. You're introducing your own bias into the interpretation and as a result, taking the verse out of context.

No, here is what is happening.

I am reading what the verse says in English.

Nothing is said about observing any day, since as Paul says, one can regard every day alike.

So your appeal to the 'Greek' is just smoke and mirrors.

Rom 14:6 He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks.

Paul makes it very clear that the 'day' is just that a day, any day of the week.

So the word 'holy day' doesn't have to mentioned and it is you who is making an assumption that there are Holy Days in the New Testament.

408 posted on 01/11/2007 5:12:20 PM PST by fortheDeclaration (For what saith the scripture? (Rom.4:3))
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To: fortheDeclaration; kerryusama04; Diego1618
No, here is what is happening.
I am reading what the verse says in English.

No, you're not. You're reading what a translator says it says in English and then you're inserting your own opinion into it.

Rom 14:6 He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks.
Paul makes it very clear that the 'day' is just that a day, any day of the week.

Actually, you're the one making the assertion that the "day" being referred to is one, or all, of the Lord's holy days. Specifically, you're making the interpretation that Paul, who believed "all that is in the law and prophets" is saying that it's "optional" for those who follow God to observe his holy days. You're saying it's "optional" followers of God observe the 4th commandment.

You're simply wrong because as has been pointed out, this verse IN CONTEXT has everything to do with days devoted to eating and drinking practices and nothing to with the Lord's holy days. One cannot read chapter 14 of Romans and come away with anything different unless one is reading it with blinders on. Which of course you are. You're reading it with the blinders of culture, tradition and history.

So the word 'holy day' doesn't have to mentioned and it is you who is making an assumption that there are Holy Days in the New Testament.

There certainly are holy days in the new testament. As pointed out previously, there is a specific greek word that designate these days as none other than the days created by Christ for his followers to observe. This word is found in the following verses:

Mat_26:5, Mat_27:15, Mar_14:2, Mar_15:6, Luk_2:41-42 (2), Luk_22:1, Luk_23:17, Joh_2:23, Joh_4:45 (2), Joh_5:1, Joh_6:4, Joh_7:2, Joh_7:8 (2), Joh_7:10-11 (2), Joh_7:14, Joh_7:37, Joh_11:56, Joh_12:12, Joh_12:20, Joh_13:1, Joh_13:29, Act_18:21,Col_2:16

You'll note that it is NOT used in Romans at all, much less Romans 14.

So I don't have to assume that there are holy days. But you, in your eagerness to keep your tradition, have to rationalize away the fact that up to this point, the followers of God traditionally, biblically, historically and religiously observed the holy days that the Lord created.

410 posted on 01/11/2007 6:11:13 PM PST by DouglasKC
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