[steadfastconservative]

Why are you posting an article by Rod Dreher, who left the Church? What can this apostate possibly contribute to the argument on clerical celibacy? For one thing, he is wrong about celibacy having been "imposed" on the Church only during the Middle Ages. Before 1139, when the Church prohibited married men from receiving Orders, all clerics, whether they were married or single, were required to practice perfect continence, that is, to be be perfectly chaste, after ordination. And this had been the ancient practice of the Church since patristic times. At the Council of Trullo in 691, the Eastern Churches departed from this practice when they decided that married priests and deacons could have conjugal relations after ordination, that they only needed to observe only periodic rather than perpetual continence after being ordained.

[Zemo]

A) It seems it was the Latin practice as well until 1139

and

B) The Eastern Catholics continue with the practice of non celibate married before ordination clergy and we are told are still fully Catholic.

[Uncle Chip]

Marriage of the clergy may have been frowned upon, but is it true that many of the clergy had concubines instead. This from the Council of Basle:

"All ecclesiastical appointments shall be made according to the canons of the Church; all simony shall cease . . . all priests whether of the highest or lowest rank shall put away their concubines . . . ".

If it wasn't a common practice, then why would the Council of Basle have had to address the problem of this common clerical indiscretion.