The following from my previous post would seem to indicate this:
But especially on the feast of her conception (December 9 in the Byzantine Church) is her immaculateness stressed: "This day, O faithful, from saintly parents begins to take being the spotless lamb, the most pure tabernacle, Mary..."; "She is conceived...the only immaculate one"; "or "Having conceived the most pure dove, Anne filled...." [References: From the Office of Matins, the Third Ode of the Canon for the feast; From the Office of Matins, the Stanzas during the Seating, for the same feast; From the Office of Matins, the Sixth Ode of the Canon for the same feast.]This also agrees with the following statement from Orthodox Wiki:
The Orthodox Church does not accept the teaching of the Immaculate Conception, but has also always believed that the Virgin Mary was, from her conception, filled with every Grace of the Holy Spirit in view of her calling as the Mother of Christ our God.I will leave for the moment how being filled with Grace from the moment of her conception does or does not differ from the Catholic idea of the Immaculate Conception. For the now can we agree that Mary was indeed, unlike the rest of us, conceived filled with Grace?
Today is also the feast of the Conception of The Most Holy Theotokos by +Anna. But our prayers have a different focus than those of your Byzantine Rite.
Apolytikion in the Fourth Tone
Against all hope, the bonds of barrenness are loosed today. For, God has hearkened unto Joachim and Anna clearly promising that they would bear a godly maiden. He who commanded the angel to cry out to her, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you," will be born of her, the infinite One Himself, becoming man.
Kontakion in the Fourth Tone
Today the world rejoices in the conception of Anna, wrought by God. For she bore the One who beyond comprehension conceived the Logos.
Do you suppose that the prayers in your Byzantine Rite reflect a Latinization of that particular church?
"I will leave for the moment how being filled with Grace from the moment of her conception does or does not differ from the Catholic idea of the Immaculate Conception. For the now can we agree that Mary was indeed, unlike the rest of us, conceived filled with Grace?"
My understanding of the consensus patrum is that God's grace, His uncreated energies fall equally on all of us, good and evil just like the sun shines on the blind and the sighted equally. This would seem to militate against the idea that Panagia was any more filled with grace at her conception than the rest of us, would it not?
I must ask you, echoing Kolokotronis, if this Byzantine document is not Latinized.
The only reference to "immaculate conception" I could find was the "9th ode the Irmos" of the first week of Great Lent. I was unable to find the actual ode itself, but I am willing to bet that the term "immaculate conception" here refers to the Annunciation, and not Mary's own conception by her parents.
Perhaps Agrarian can shed some light on this, thanks extended in advance.