Calling Mary the mother of Jesus is sufficient--if the goal is to distinguish her from all other mothers.
What is the purpose of changing it to calling her
THE MOTHER OF GAWWWWWWWD
???
Why is "Mother of Jesus" inadquate, in sufficient?
Inadequate in terms of what?
In sufficient in terms of what?
Why the change?
Sociolinguistically, please explain the change.
Psycholinguistically, please explain the change?
I don't think sociolinguistics or psycholinguistics were among the concerns of the ecumenical councils.
They oppose "Mother of Christ" because Nestorius used it. And he likely wasn't even a Nestorian in the way the council defined the heresy! Mother of Jesus is of course a biblical term, but I've been told it is inadequate because to them it strips the person in Mary's womb of His deity. That makes zero sense, but that is what I was told probably 6000 posts ago.