No, because you are ignoring the extra-biblical facts preserved in Tradition as well as made explicit in the fathers.
Your claim that comparing Jesus's baptism and Mary's ritual purification is comparing apples and oranges simply begs the question. I already showed that the Law does not necessitate impurity; it is given to deal with impurity. Therefore, obedience to a ritual cleansing law does not prove impurity, just as Jesus's baptism does not prove His impurity.
-A8
"I already showed that the Law does not necessitate impurity; it is given to deal with impurity. Therefore, obedience to a ritual cleansing law does not prove impurity, just as Jesus's baptism does not prove His impurity."
You just gave your opinion that the Law does not necessitate impurity without any factual basis for the conjecture. If there was ever "begging the question" it was your conclusion.