"Not at all. The Levitical law that you quote did not *make* a woman unclean at birth. The Levitical law was for the purpose of purifying what was unclean. In other words, the Law assumes that the woman would be unclean. And in ordinary cases the woman is *indeed* ceremonial unclean in such circumstances. But the law does not say that every birth (whether male or female) of a woman *necessarily* makes her unclean. The law is not ruling out the possibility of a divine miracle that prevent a woman from being made ceremonially unclean upon the birth of a male child. That's where you are making your mistake. You are assuming that the Levitical law in question makes it impossible for God to miraculously prevent a woman from being made ceremonially unclean upon giving birth to a male child. But you are not justified in limiting the omnipotence of God in this way."
Whoa, and you think the Protestants are "gnostic" because of a belief in the witness of the Holy Spirit? What secret formula do you need to divine this mystery? Mary knew she had to go through the purification rites and the priests of the day knew that fact. Nothing in the scriptures say that she was exempt because of some miraculous "get out of impurity" card. The scriptures do say over and over again that Jesus was sinless so to compare the necessity of His baptism to Mary's purification is comparing apples and oranges. They are inapposite.
No formula, just careful study.
Mary knew she had to go through the purification rites and the priests of the day knew that fact.
Agreed.
Nothing in the scriptures say that she was exempt because of some miraculous "get out of impurity" card.
That is an argument from silence.
The scriptures do say over and over again that Jesus was sinless so to compare the necessity of His baptism to Mary's purification is comparing apples and oranges. They are inapposite.
That begs the question.
-A8