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You say that due to Eph 4:5 and "the apprearance of worshipping her makes most protestants a wee bit nervous."

Paul was not teaching a group of Mother's of God. No historian or theologian has ever definitively stated that Paul wrote this to epistle to anyone but the non-Mother-of-God Ephesians. So, as typical non-mothers-of-God Christians see this epistle not as a proof that Mary was not sinless, but that we need Christ, Baptism and faith. Mary was redeemed by Christ. Only through Christ did Mary do anything that was good. Without Christ, Mary would not have been sinless! No way. No how.

I can also do as you have done ...

Jn 6:53-58 Jesus said to them, "Amen, amen, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you do not have life within you. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him on the last day. For my flesh is true food, and my blood is true drink. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me and I in him. Just as the living Father sent me and I have life because of the Father, so also the one who feeds on me will have life because of me. This is the bread that came down from heaven. Unlike your ancestors who ate and still died, whoever eats this bread will live forever."

The appearance of protestants not accepting Christ's call to His Eucharist makes most Catholics a wee bit nervous as well.

But, I do not think we should list that which makes each of us nervous about the other. Can we focus on the questions posed? Especially since one person has claimed another person has blasphemed.

Christ cannot provide graces to Mary that He doesn't provide to others? I would say that denying Christ's ability to create Mary sinless through His graces is blasphemy. He provided graces to Moses to part the sea, provide water from a rock ... Why is it blasphemy to say Mary was sinless? Is sinless beyond 'death to all firstborn males'? If so, to what magnitude and by whose law and understanding? Mary is the Mother of God. She was made sinless by Christ, not herself. It is a grace from God. Moses was not the Mother of God and he received graces before Christ redeemed us all. Moses lead His people and accepted God's law but he did not give birth to The Word. Saying she was and is sinless is no blasphemy. God created all and redeemed everything, including Mary. What rule has God broken by accomplishing sinlessness in his mother?

Self cannibalisation makes Protestants a wee bit nervous.

The difference between Moses parting the sea and Mary being born sinless is that the bible mentions the first and not the others.

That should be of interest to most, and to many of us scripture is THE critical issue.

I'm sure you can put our lens on for just a moment and "see" through our eyes, can't you?