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To: bornacatholic; Blogger

Clearly, Blogger means that the Church "accepted" the Old Testament Hebrew canon of Jamnia (the same council that declared Christians to be Jewish apostates), but since per Hippo/Carthage we clearly have not I would like a clarification as to what is he referring to.


3,645 posted on 01/03/2007 10:56:10 AM PST by annalex
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To: annalex
I think the only clear thing is the echo of the protestant oral tradition. Once one starts teasing-out what is meant by the various unexamined catch-phrases one runs into a numinous rejection of authority anchored to nothing solid one can trace back to Scripture or Tradition.

At least that is all I can see

3,648 posted on 01/03/2007 11:02:30 AM PST by bornacatholic
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To: annalex; bornacatholic; Blogger
Clearly, Blogger means that the Church "accepted" the Old Testament Hebrew canon of Jamnia

The Church used Septuagint all along ewven when the Church was still made up of observant Jews. There was never "acceptance" of the Old Testament; it was part of the Church all along.

Who cares what the rabbinical scholas concluded at Jamnia! Among other things, the rabbis there ordered all the Jews to "curse the name of Jesus of Nazareth." I wonder if that is still part of their religious routine.

3,708 posted on 01/03/2007 1:40:41 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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