So according to Catholicism, Paul's purpose in writing Romans 3:23 was to say that: "For all wicked Jews have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. Many of you must have thought that some wicked Jews were sinless, but I am here to correct you and state that in fact, ALL of the wicked Jews have sinned." This is a very profound statement. What were the rest of us supposed to think about wicked Jews until Paul came along to tell us that they all sinned? :) This reminds me of that Time Magazine cover story where it was announced for the first time that scientists had discovered that men and women were different.
No, there is no doctrinal statement on these verses in Romans 3. However, we approach Romans 3 KNOWING that man is NOT totally corrupted - but merely wounded. Also, when further exploring Romans 3, something that you as a Protestant are quite capable of doing WITHOUT Rome, should be able to see what I am talking about. I have already detailed this to you quite extensively a few months ago before entering therapy!
Succinctly, Paul quotes from the Psalms. These VERY PSALMS ALSO speak of righteous people, as well. Thus, Paul AND the Psalms talk about wicked men, not one of them turn to the Lord. But in the same Psalm, they also speak of the righteous men that DO. Surely, Paul knew this. Thus, I contend that Paul did NOT mean that ALL men literally are wicked - he would be contradicting Scriptures. Paul utilizes Scripture in context. Thus, when he quotes it, he realizes that he is also using the background of his quotes to portray something. Furthermore, note in Chapter 2 what Paul says about the Gentiles. These are strange words - that they follow the Law written on their hearts, that they are spiritually circumcised, etc, IF ALL men are wicked!
Clearly, in context, Paul is saying that Jewish customs and their national heritage does not save a man - which is NOT what the Judaizers thought... FAITH in God does. The Jews thought that the Gentiles should be circumcised. Remember this is one of the big problems Paul had with the Jewish Christians, right? Paul is saying that one didn't have to become a Jew FIRST to have faith! This faith can even be exercised by Gentiles, as Ch. 2 describes. This faith, of course, is from the Spirit, who is the Author of the Law on our hearts! The problem is your paradigm that sees all men as evil, and thus, you overlook the context of Romans 3 and the Psalms that it quotes.
Is this interpretation from the Catholic Church? Not necessarily. We have a particular paradigm that we have been taught. Part of this is that ALL men are NOT wicked or will refuse to turn to God. Clearly, the Scriptures refute that idea over and over by mentioning righteous people. Thus, when we hear your interpretation of Romans 3, we know it is false. Not because Rome has passed out a commentary on Romans to us, but because it doesn't fit in with the "traditions passed down". But even a non-Christian would see my point of view and disagree that Paul could have meant all people are evil, because they would only have to read a few of the Psalms that deny this idea - which Paul quotes from.
Many of you must have thought that some wicked Jews were sinless
HUH??
Regards