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To: adiaireton8; HarleyD; AlbionGirl; Forest Keeper; xzins; blue-duncan; TomSmedley; Gamecock; ...
But Christ the Savior could not violate the physical integrity of His mother, and hence the Church teaches that Mary remained a virgin (in all aspects) even throughout the birth of Christ.

The phrase, "violate the physical integrity of his mother," is legalistic, nonsensical and unScriptural. Christ was born of a woman because He was required to be 100% man and 100% God.

Christ's human birth was accomplished exactly like yours and mine was accomplished. This doesn't demean Him; it fulfills the requirement that God become man in order to pay the ransom for the sins of His elect which could never be satisfied by human recompense.

274 posted on 12/05/2006 7:33:12 PM PST by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: Dr. Eckleburg
Christ's human birth was accomplished exactly like yours and mine was accomplished.

Where does it say that in Scripture? Or are you again making use of the fallacy of the argument from silence?

-A8

277 posted on 12/05/2006 7:56:13 PM PST by adiaireton8 ("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; adiaireton8; HarleyD; AlbionGirl; Forest Keeper; xzins

"But Christ the Savior could not violate the physical integrity of His mother,"

The scriptures say that Mary was unclean due to the birth and could not touch any hallowed thing nor enter the synagogue until her 40 days of purification were complete.

Luke 2:22-24, "And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;
(As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;)
And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons."

Lev. 12:1-4, "And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled."


283 posted on 12/05/2006 8:15:27 PM PST by blue-duncan
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; Agrarian; Kolokotronis; Campion; annalex; HarleyD; AlbionGirl; Forest Keeper; ...
Christ's human birth was accomplished exactly like yours and mine was accomplished

Hmmm, His "conception" (Incarnation was nothing human and or "natural," so why would His birth be? Would you say that His human death, then, was exactly like the death of all humans?

The Christology which the Fathers carefully guarded against all sorts of heresies, states that there is nothing entirely human about Christ; we cannot separate Him from His divinity any more than we can separate Him form His humanity. Yet He remains unconfused, both God and man, in one Person.

A no point was the Incarnate Christ only human. To claim otherwise is to separate Him from His divinity.

284 posted on 12/05/2006 8:19:04 PM PST by kosta50 (Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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