[bornacatholic]

You think when Jesus spoke directly to His Daughter He was propheysing? I don't read any prophecy there in my Bible

[1000 silverlings]

Changing the subject. The prophets called Israel "Daughter". So did they father them or what? Why'd they call them (and men at that!) "Daughter?"

[HarleyD]

You think when Jesus spoke directly to His Daughter He was propheysing?

Hmmmm...I've been reading your exchange with 1000 and I was at first a bit skeptical and then intrigued. I will say that I have always thought this to be a cultural thing, with Christ referring to them in some type of cultural environment; much like 1000 believes. However, upon closer inspection I'm not so sure.

While I don't believe Christ was these people physical father, I think He might have been referring to them in a spiritual sense. To each of the person He refers to as "Daughter" and (yes) "Son" (Mar 2:5), it is because He preface it with "Daughter, your faith has..." or "Son, thy sins be forgiven thee". I believe what you have stumbled on to was several examples of where Christ was personally acknowledging these people as Sons and Daughters of the kingdom of God. Consequently, they were His Sons and Daughters; Children of Abraham made righteous through faith. There are no examples that I can find where Christ calls a non-believer a "Son" or "Daughter".

Sola scriptura once again prevails.