I am not treating Jesus as a person separate from the WORD!!! Give me a break. My whole point was that the Greek Orthodox source cited was saying that the Bible said the "firstborn WORD" when that is not what that SPECIFIC TEXT said.
Who said Mary's children forsook her? Not I.
The Canon of Scripture was COMPLETE about 90 AD when John wrote Revelation. There were no more canonical books coming out from that point. What the council decided later is not what I was referring to. The lists of canonical books were intact before the Council (some lists had other books as well lest you want to lecture me on history).
Jesus and the firstborn Word are one and the same. You can't refer to Jesus Christ and not refer to the Word of God, just as when we refer to God, we refer to the Holy Trinity even if not explicitly.
The Canon of Scripture was COMPLETE about 90 AD when John wrote Revelation
Except the Christians didn't know which scrolls were canonical and which were not. The canon was a consensual decision of the Church. It took about 300 years for that to happen. The oldest complete Christian Bible (Codex Sinaiticus) is only decades away from official canonization of couple of dozen scrolls (of over 200+ that were circulationg around) consists of the OT (Greek language Septuagint), New Testament in Greek and the Epistle of Barnabas. Modern Bibles don't have the Epistle of Barnabas.
So, while all the books of the Christian Canon had been written by the end of the 1st century, the actual Christian Canon was not put together until 300 years later, and even then some discrepancies persisted.