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To: annalex
The local churches had the scriptures long before any Council recognized them offically. True. These churches were Catholic, and the scriptures were complete, with the Deuterocanons.

The local churches were not 'Catholic', they were Christian and met in houses.(Rom.16:5)

The scriptures that these local churches had did not have the Apocrypha in them, they were added in the 3rd century coming with Origen's corrupt LXX

True Christians had the Old Testament that the Lord used, the Jewish Canon, which did not have the Apocrypha in it.

The rest of your post is not worth time responding.

Thank you, you saved me time in repudiating more RCC nonsense.

13,707 posted on 04/29/2007 6:36:25 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (For what saith the scripture? (Rom.4:3))
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To: fortheDeclaration; annalex; kosta50

“True Christians had the Old Testament that the Lord used, the Jewish Canon,...”

Where in heaven’s name did you get this idea? Christ and the Apostles used the Septuagint which contains the Apocrypha. The so called “Jewish Canon” wasn’t put together until the Council of Jamnia in the late 1st century AD.


13,711 posted on 04/29/2007 9:49:57 AM PDT by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: fortheDeclaration
The local churches were not 'Catholic'

Sure they were. The Church was described as "catholic" by St. Ignatius in late 1c -- yearly 2c at the latest.

As soon as the concept of a canon existed, it was the Catholic Canon; prior to that, they simply had whatever books came their way.

13,749 posted on 04/30/2007 1:36:11 PM PDT by annalex
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