Even if coming at it from a bit of an angle, I can agree with the first part, and I fully agree with the second part. Is it accepted Orthodoxy, then, that election by Divine foreknowledge is not correct? That surprises me, as I do not remember having heard of another explanation of the verses that discuss election and predestination.
“Is it accepted Orthodoxy, then, that election by Divine foreknowledge is not correct?”
No. The Greek Fathers always explained election in terms of divine foreknowledge. What I was demonstrating is what one can do applying logic to divine mystery.