The word 'satan' appears in exactly 3 books of the OT, as your linked article correctly observes: Job (13 times in), 1 chronicles (once) and Zechariah (once).
Your reference to Eze 28 is not one of them. In post 13250), I said regarding this (emphasis added): "This is not about Satan (although it deceptively sounds like it is!). Christians have twisted the meaning to fit their paradigm. This is directed a Phoenician entity. There is no Satan to be found by name or otherwise in those verses."
To which you responded (13625) "The leaning I have in the spirit concerning Eze 28:15-19 is that it is indeed speaking of Satan. Whether it also has some meaning concerning a Phoenician entity makes no difference – many such things have more than one meaning, even the Hebrew word satan itself has two meanings."
There is no other meaning. The chapter is about Ithobal, the Phoenician prince of Tyre (modern day Lebanon) for his arrogance and pride. Tyre was the seat of Hercules and of Phoenician religion. Its king considered himself "a god." Eze 28 has nothing whatsoever to do with Satan as the Accuser is presented in the OT.
The "other" meaning was added through the lens of Christianity, the way Isaiah 14 :13-14 is distorted in the same way:
"You said in your heart, "I will ascend to heaven; I will raise my throne above the stars of God; I will sit enthroned on the mount of assembly, on the utmost heights of the sacred mountain. I will ascend above the tops of the clouds; I will make myself like the Most High."
It's not about Satan (as seen through a Christian lens) but about the king of Babylon.
Our difference over Eze 28 is not a problem to me. We sometimes will look at the same passage, and spiritually hear different things.